[Comte De St. Germain]

(08-21-2015 10:22 AM)ksbms Wrote:  

Whereas I did not provide empirical evidence that artificial scents do mask pheromones, the contrary needs to be empirically proven as well. Enigma correcty pointed out that the burden of proof is on the person who makes the claim but by not having provided an empirical evidence for that proof (I'll try to find it but if I fail, I'll be first to acknowledge it), it doesn't mean that that the contrary is necessarily true.

In my view, the jury is still out.

My problem is this right here. How can you prove that artificial scents mask pheromones? On the other hand all the proof I need to know artificial scents work is the extensive usage of such product throughout human history.

Why did humans through evolutionary tactics much like animals decide that artificial scents do work? Well the simple fact of the matter is that those whom reproduced en masse have made it the norm. Basic law of survival of the fittest. It became widespread because it worked and no one wanted to smell like sweat and ass. Human history is all the proof you need.