0/20 rule
08-06-2015, 03:52 PM
I've often read - not just on RVF but elsewhere on the Internet - that 80% of the sex women are having is with only 20% of the men at any one time, a claim that is often expressed as the "80/20 rule". My own - admittedly rather limited - experience seems to bear this out, although I find it hard to verify fully, based as it is only anecdotal evidence.
Does anybody on here have any information as to more objective sources of verification of the 80/20 rule? Has there, for example, been studies conducted which lend credence to this ratio?
Does anybody on here have any information as to more objective sources of verification of the 80/20 rule? Has there, for example, been studies conducted which lend credence to this ratio?