My legal knowledge is fuzzy on this, but isn't it true that anti-discrimination laws are tied to interstate commerce? For example, if you're based in Texas and only serve people from Texas, you can (legally) discriminate?
The Feds often work benevolently through loopholes, for example, creating a drinking age of 21 by withholding Federal highway funding if the state has a lower age.
The Feds often work benevolently through loopholes, for example, creating a drinking age of 21 by withholding Federal highway funding if the state has a lower age.